| T O P I C R E V I E W |
| hotcorner |
Posted - 04/17/2011 : 19:41:54
Bases loaded with zero outs and the infield is playing in. Player hits the ball that hops over 2nd baseman's shoulder and hits the runner going to second. Is this a dead ball out and runners go back to original bases. Ump said because our infield was playing in the baserunners were allowed to advance to the base in front of them which was the winning run. What is the rule? |
| 11 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First) |
| christheump |
Posted - 04/18/2011 : 15:04:54
Hence the difference in rules and the confusion that can occur. |
| stanlewis |
Posted - 04/18/2011 : 14:46:56
NFHS rules state that the runner can be called out after the ball passes any infielder, except the pitcher, and the umpire is convinced that another infielder has a play. (8.4.2k) |
| christheump |
Posted - 04/18/2011 : 13:46:12
quote:
Originally posted by Alter-Ego
Maybe Chris the Ump or one of the other umpires that visit here will tell us how they would interpret this scenario.
I always interpreted it as "if the runner was behind one of the infielders (excluding the P) and were hit with the ball, it was a live ball and they just inherited a bruise." No contact with the defensive player is required.
10-4 on your understanding. |
| Alter-Ego |
Posted - 04/18/2011 : 12:32:42
Maybe Chris the Ump or one of the other umpires that visit here will tell us how they would interpret this scenario.
I always interpreted it as "if the runner was behind one of the infielders (excluding the P) and were hit with the ball, it was a live ball and they just inherited a bruise." No contact with the defensive player is required. |
| beanball |
Posted - 04/18/2011 : 10:06:44
In my opinion no one would have had an opportunity to make the play. The ball was hit too hard for the 1st baseman to react and too far from the 2nd baseman to get to. There was no argurment on the play by the coaches and it did not have an impact on the outcome of the game so I didn't think much of it until Hotcorner's post. |
| Alter-Ego |
Posted - 04/18/2011 : 09:26:28
beanball,
I guess the question is "Did the first baseman have an opportunity to make a play on the ball or was the ball hit closer to the second baseman?"
If it was hit closer to the first baseman, who did not make the play, the runner would not be out because the defense had an unobstructed opportunity to make the play. It does not have to get passed "All" the infielders before hitting the runner, just past "A fielder having the opportunity to make the play". |
| famosrichit |
Posted - 04/18/2011 : 09:08:47
Yes, unless the ball was touched by the first baseman before it hit the runner. |
| beanball |
Posted - 04/18/2011 : 06:48:18
Let me add a twist to this scenario. Runner on first, 1st base holding runner. Rest of infield back. Batter hits a one hop through past the 1st baseman through the hole & hits the runner going to 2nd. Ball has past the 1st baseman but not the 2nd baseman. Is runner out? |
| touchemall |
Posted - 04/17/2011 : 20:52:45
I was always taught once an infielder makes an attempt on a hit ball and if it hits the runner as a result of them not fielding it clean then the runner was not out and can advance. |
| Rhinoball |
Posted - 04/17/2011 : 20:49:22
Runners are safe because the fielder had an opportunity to field the ball before it struck the runner. Sorry. |
| bball-fan |
Posted - 04/17/2011 : 20:47:53
Once the ball gets past the infielder, the runner is not out if the ball hits him.
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